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Remonds me of the classic story about a final exam in a philosophy class with a single question Question: "Define risk." Student's answer: "Risk is this"

I'm 50% convinced. But the fact that I'm even partly convinced is in itself pretty convincing, so I'm updating that to 75%. And the proof's ability to change my mind that fast is even more impressive: 87.5%. Is a proof whose convincingness converges to 100% formally acceptable?

"without words, pictures, or content of any kind" modifies "to construct". This proof is constructed within, and thus not without, content. Without that contextual content, this proof could not be constructed. Therefore it's false.

Logically consistent whether one finds the proof convincing or not. If the proof is unconvincing, it is invalid; if it is convincing, it is valid. If trying to prove the inverse in the same way, obviously the same proof would not suffice, since if it *were* convincing, it would be a counterexample.

Yet, the proof not being convincing doesn't *disprove* the inverted hypothesis—merely fail to prove it while being simultaneously evidence for it. So we don't end up with a similar situation to Russell's Paradox.